What's the first wrong statement in the proof below that $ \triangle EBD \cong \triangle EBC$ $ \; ?$ $ \overline{BC} $ is parallel to $ \overline{DF} $. This diagram is not drawn to scale. $A$ $B$ $C$ $D$ $E$ $F$ Givens $ \angle CFE \cong \angle DBE$ $, \ $ $ \overline{EF} \cong \overline{BE}$ $, \ $ $ \angle CEF \cong \angle BED$ $, \ $ $ \overline{AB} \cong \overline{BE}$ $, \ $ $ \angle BAC \cong \angle BED$ $, \ $ and $\ $ $ \overline{AC} \cong \overline{DE}$ Proof $ \triangle EBD \cong \triangle EFC$ because ASA $ \overline{DE} \cong \overline{CE}$ because corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent $ \angle ACB \cong \angle DBE$ because corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent $ \angle BDE \cong \angle ECF$ because corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent $ \triangle EBD \cong \triangle ABC$ because SAS $ \triangle EBD \cong \triangle EBC$ because SSS
Solution: Try going through the proof yourself: write down the givens, and then see if they justify the next step for the reason given. Then do the same thing for the next step, and the next, until you run into something that you can't justify, or you finish the proof. $ \angle DBE \cong \angle ACB$ is the first wrong statement.